Newtonian mechanics presents a simultaneous description of dynamics x(t) and interactions (F=dp/dt) because it assumes infinite resolution, i.e. dx->0, dt->0. We have argued in a previous note (1), that quantum mechanics follows from free particle quantum mechanics, which in turn follows from special relativity. Special relativity uses the notion of x=vt and provides formulas for E=mocc/sqrt(1-vv/cc) and p=mov/sqrt(1-vv/cc) even with no free particle quantum mechanical notions. We have also argued in previous notes, however, that these classical concepts are present in the Lorentz invariant -Et+px which we have argued (2) acts as a kind of free particle potential. This potential, however, has the same value for x, t and x+hbar/p, t+hbar/E and so we have suggested that free particle quantum mechanics is comprised of two parts. The first is a complex probability exp(-iEt+ipx) which describes possible interactions with a free particle and the second is x=vt. In other words, interactions and dynamics are split, but the interaction probability depends on classical notions such as x=vt, p and E. In the limit of hbar/p and hbar/E <<1, the interaction resolution becomes the Newtonian dx->0, dt.->0. Thus, as in (1), we argue that quantum and classical mechanics are intertwined. In (3), entitled Unifying Quantum and Classical Dynamics, a similar argument for the intertwining of quantum mechanics and classical mechanics is presented, but in a different manner. The basic argument of (3) seems to be that quantum mechanics, written in the Heisenberg approach, yields operator equations which are identical in form to classical equations, in particular, d/dt X(t) = P(t) and d/dt d/dt X(t) = -d/dx V( X(t)). Here X(t) and P(t) are operators given by X(t) = exp(iH t) X(0) exp(-iHt) (and a similar expression for P(t). We try to show that given that free particle quantum mechanics is directly linked to special relativity and hence to the acceptance of x=vt, that in the free particle case, any operator description of d/dt X(t) = P(t) cannot yield any result other than a classical one because no interaction is occurring. In other words, quantum mechanics is directly linked to classical mechanics at the free particle level. Later, one takes a superposition (OR probability addition) of exp(ipx)s, as in the case of bound states. In such a case, one deals with average interactions and so one must be careful when interpreting d/dt d/dt X(t) = -d/dx V( X(t)) as the system description is now an average one.
Newtonian mechanics presents a simultaneous description of dynamics x(t) and interactions (F=dp/dt) because it assumes infinite resolution, i.e. dx->0, dt->0. We have argued in a previous note (1), that quantum mechanics follows from free particle quantum mechanics, which in turn follows from special relativity. Special relativity uses the notion of x=vt and provides formulas for E=mocc/sqrt(1-vv/cc) and p=mov/sqrt(1-vv/cc) even with no free particle quantum mechanical notions. We have also argued in previous notes, however, that these classical concepts are present in the Lorentz invariant -Et+px which we have argued (2) acts as a kind of free particle potential. This potential, however, has the same value for x, t and x+hbar/p, t+hbar/E and so we have suggested that free particle quantum mechanics is comprised of two parts. The first is a complex probability exp(-iEt+ipx) which describes possible interactions with a free particle and the second is x=vt. In other words, interactions and dynamics are split, but the interaction probability depends on classical notions such as x=vt, p and E. In the limit of hbar/p and hbar/E <<1, the interaction resolution becomes the Newtonian dx->0, dt.->0. Thus, as in (1), we argue that quantum and classical mechanics are intertwined. In (3), entitled Unifying Quantum and Classical Dynamics, a similar argument for the intertwining of quantum mechanics and classical mechanics is presented, but in a different manner. The basic argument of (3) seems to be that quantum mechanics, written in the Heisenberg approach, yields operator equations which are identical in form to classical equations, in particular, d/dt X(t) = P(t) and d/dt d/dt X(t) = -d/dx V( X(t)). Here X(t) and P(t) are operators given by X(t) = exp(iH t) X(0) exp(-iHt) (and a similar expression for P(t). We try to show that given that free particle quantum mechanics is directly linked to special relativity and hence to the acceptance of x=vt, that in the free particle case, any operator description of d/dt X(t) = P(t) cannot yield any result other than a classical one because no interaction is occurring. In other words, quantum mechanics is directly linked to classical mechanics at the free particle level. Later, one takes a superposition (OR probability addition) of exp(ipx)s, as in the case of bound states. In such a case, one deals with average interactions and so one must be careful when interpreting d/dt d/dt X(t) = -d/dx V( X(t)) as the system description is now an average one.
In Part 1, we argued that Newtonian mechanics essentially contains the notion of probability found in the free particle wavefunction exp(-iEt+ipx). The difference is that the wavefunction/probability quantifies dx=hbar/p and dt=hbar/E. The standard Newtonian approach is to have dx->0 dt->0 in order not to deal with the lengths of these intervals. This limiting feature may work in the classical world (but not for photons reflecting and refracting through windows), as the actual sizes of dx and dt may in general be very small in the classical world, but they are not small in the case of atomic or nuclear lengths. The question is: In Newtonian mechanics, without any reference to exp(-iEt+ipx), how would one obtain finite values for dx and dt? Furthermore, why should one wish to obtain dx,dt values associated with x,t in x=vt. We suggest that because one deals with a moving object, and not a stationary one, any x,t on a x=vt trajectory should be associated with a dx,dt to verify its existence. Unlike the stationary case, for which one may strike the particle and make it move, dx,dt for the moving particle should be dynamical and associated with Lorentz invariance. We suggest that it is meaningless to speak of x,t for a moving particle without a corresponding dx,dt. If one can obtain dx,dt values, then one can argue, as we did in Part 1, that Newtonian mechanics contains the notion of an uncertainty dx about x and dt about t for a free particle. This is essentially the uncertainty which allows the 2-slit interference to occur and solves the probabilistic reflection-refraction problem at an n1-n2 index of refraction interface. Of course, if probability must exist within dx and dt, one requires a math expression for such a probability (i.e. exp(-iEt+ipx). One cannot simply use Newtonian mechanics because it does not make use of such a probability, but at least it predicts that such a probability should exist, we argue. Here we show that one may directly use special relativity to show that dx=hbar/p and dt=hbar/E in Newtonian mechanics, such that one has a dx and dt associated with the same value of the classical action as x,t for which x=vt. The classical action describes, for various x,t values describes the x(t)) trajectory in spacetime and so having built-in dx,dt values in this same action ( which is the Lorentz invariant -Et+px both nonrelativistically and relativistically) shows that Newtonian mechanics must be associated with finite dx,dt. The reason that we consider a dx and dt in the first place is that v=dx/dt. The Newtonian approach is to take the limit dx->0 and dt->0. This, we argue, is associated with a coarse-grained equation x=vt which holds both relativistically and nonrelativistically. This is associated with a coarse-grained classical action.Each x,t on the trajectory x=vt yields a different action value for the action (x/v*.5mvv or -x/v mo sqrt(1-vv/cc) or -Et+px where x/t=v. One may consider x=vt and x+dx1 and t+dt1 as the next points in the trajectory. According to Newtonian mechanics, one may make these values arbitrarily small. Furthermore, x=vt holds both nonrelativsitically and nonrelativisitically. How then can one propose a finite valued dx and dt? We argue that the manner in which this may be achieved is to have a dx,dt associated with x,t which does not change the action value for x,t, i.e. does not change -Et+px. This set dx,dt is finite valued even though the next x,t considered may have a dx1, dt1 value such that dx1<<dx and dt1<<dt. If, however, dx and dt are to be taken seriously, the dx1 and dt1 less than dx,dt are simply math values, not physical ones. In other words, one needs a dx,dt to justify the existence of x,t and if x=vt allows any x+dx1 (dx1<<hbar/p), then this is a coarse-grained equation. The coarse-grained action, however, allows for the defining dx=hbar/p and dt=hbar/E even if the action itself is coarse-grained.
In previous notes, we argued that one could describe elastic two particle collisions, even in Newtonian mechanics, in a classical statistical manner. In particular, we argued that one could introduce a probability which depends on E,p, but at the same time has the same weight (in a sense) for any free particle. Product probabilities would be linked with a uniform distribution in the sense that exp(-iE1)exp(-iE2)= exp(-iE3)exp(-iE4) if E1+E2=E3+E4 and a similar expression for momentum. If one respects the special relativistic invariant -Et+px, then a possible solution is exp(-iEt+ipx), but even though this yields the free particle wavefunction (probability), this does not explain quantum mechanics. These are simply ideas of classical probability theory with the enforced special relativistic invariant -Et+px. Here, we argue that the real feature leading to quantum mechanics (the idea of hbar/p and hbar/E) arises from the notion of inertia (which we have argued in previous notes also gives rise to spin). We argue that a single force (inertia) in a rest frame becomes two independent interaction notions, E and p as well as creating x’ as a running variable. Thus, mo,t and E,t’ and p,x’ are intertwined. We suggest that there must be a physical mechanism which keeps these two concepts E,p independent and so one cannot simply rely on x=vt. Given the Lorentz invariant and the classical notion of probability exp(-iEt+ipx), one must go one step further and postulate that there are independent fluctuations in t’ and x’ in such a calculation such that hbar/E and hbar/p emerge. We argue that this is a key feature of quantum mechanics and that it does not immediately arise from exp(-iEt+ipx) if one only considers x=vt. One is forced to allow x,t to fluctuate independently which leads to a fluctuation in mocc in the rest frame as well. We argue that this feature is actually associated with special relativity as it allows a single force inertia to manifest itself as two independent interaction quantities E,p. As a result, we suggest that one may obtain exp(-iEt+ipx) without any notion of probability, but only by postulating the existence of a physical mechanism (fluctuation of x’,t’ or t in the rest frame) which keeps E,p independent because -Et+px does not ensure their independence if one only considers x=vt. One may then interpret exp(-iEt+ipx) as having the form of a classical probability which respects special relativity.
In (1), the notion of a stochastic classical action is introduced and a probability is linked to exp( constant * action). The objective of (1) is not to derive quantum mechanics, but to derive stochastic dynamics based on maximum entropy in action space. We have argued in a number of previous notes (2) that one may use the classical action to create a quantum free particle probability. This classical action, however, is not chosen a priori, but rather arises due to other considerations. We suggest that stochasticity is present in Newtonian mechanics at some time scale because dt is finite in dp/dt= Force (Newton’s second law) and so postulate that force delivery at some x,t is probabilistic within some dt and dx. A priori, dt and dx are not known, but if there is stochasticity, there should be a free particle probability, i.e. a probability(x,t) where x,t represent an x, t interaction point. Furthermore, the notion of dx and dt should arise naturally. We note that the form exp(i function(x,t,p,E) may be introduced because free particles have no distributed variable (like energy in the Maxwell-Boltzmann case). exp(i function(x,t)) immediately introduces periodicity, but we have argued that stochasticity can only exist within tiny, fixed dx, dt linked to dp/dt=F. In particular, one classical Newtonian scales this stochasticity is not seen. The periodicity should be directly in x and t space, suggesting exp( i A1 t + i A2 x). This expression, however, should be Lorentz invariant, and A1 and A2 should be constants, at least for a fixed mo and v. The reason that the one must have periodicity is that the dx and dt ranges of stochasticity in dp/dt=Fr must appear naturally. At this point, one is led to exp(-iEt+ipx) with -Et+px being a Lorentz invariant which satisfies the above criteria. This Lorentz invariant happens to be the classical action in both the relativistic and nonrelativistic cases, hence giving rise to action as being a stochastic variable (of (1)) because it is a function of the two scholastic variables x and t. Alternatively, one may choose the exp(iA1x+iA2t) due to its conservation properties. One may then argue that A1 and A2 could also be conserved for x,t held constant, i.e. A1 and A2 could be linked to Newtonian energy and momentum in elastic collisions. This allows one to solve for the special relativistic g(v) =1/sqrt(1-vv/cc). Given the idea of a conserved quantity form for a probability, one may argue that exp(i Action) satisfies a maximization of Shannon’s entropy subject to a conserved constraint (which is again a link with (1).) The question then becomes: Why should the Lorentz invariant A= -Et+px be the classical action.One may note that x,t usually refer to trajectory values and so for a free particle, one has x=vt. This means that one may factor out t, i.e. A= t( -E+pv), but this is automatically the form of the Lagrangian with E being the Hamiltonian. This holds relativistically and non-relativistically with the form: dL/dv partial = p. The remaining question is: Why should the classical action be Lorentz invariant? We consider E(v)-p(v) v = -L such that dE/dv - v dp/dv -p = -dL/dv partial. This means that dE/dv - v dpd/v = 0 ((1)). A Lorentz transformation, however, changes mo in a rest frame into p=mov/sqrt(1-vv/cc) and E=mocc/sqrt(1-vv/cc). One may see that this solution may be obtained from ((1)) showing a direct link between the classical action approach and special relativity. The connection may be carried further as Lt = -Et+px is a Lorentz invariant, but also the classical action (in both the relativistic and nonrelativistic cases). We argue that the use of the action in (1) as a stochastic variable is directly related to special relativity. In summary, from finite dt in dp/dt=F, t and x are stochastic variables within some naturally appearing dx and dt. One may write a linear combination of x and t and to create a stochastic Lorent invariant variable which should appear in exp(i Lorentz invariant) and create the dx and dt units. It may then be shown that this Lorentz invariant in E,p,x,t should be equivalent to the classical action.
We try to consider free particle and single bound state quantum mechanics from the viewpoint of classical physics. We first assume that a free particle moves as x=vt. Secondly, we assume that dx and dt cannot be 0 as in Newtonian mechanics, but must be finite. This begs the question: How does one measure dx and dt? If one can measure a particle at a given x and t, then dx→0, dt→0. Thus, finite dx, dt means that a given p=constant and pp/2m=kinetic energy (nonrelativistic) interact with a force over a finite dx. In other words, one does not know where the interaction occurs within dx. As long as the free particle moves without interacting, then x=vt and there is no interest in any dx or interactions. For example, one may measure very large x and t ranges. Even if there are dx and dt effects at the start and end points, these are small compared to the large x and t values. As a result, one has a F(x,p) probability within dx, which repeats itself for the next dx (i.e. is periodic), where F is a probability for a p impulse hit at x within dx. At the same time, the particle moves with x=vt it seems within dx. In general, one might then think that F(x,p) and x=vt are decoupled. In previous notes, we have argued that one way to couple F(x,p) and x=vt is through special relativity, i.e. A = -Et+px. X and t values used would presumably satisfy x=vt, but for any x,t one has x+hbar/p and t+hbar/E as solutions yielding the same A value and so might consider dx= hbar/p and dt=hbar/E. The question we ask here is whether one may arrive at this conclusion without using special relativity. The answer seems to be that one can if one suggests that F(x,p) must contain information making it consistent with x=vt, i.e. with every x and t point having the same weight. Clearly, however, each x,t do not have the same weight within dx and dt, but are rather governed by F(x,p). This means, however, that F(x,-p) also represents a probability distribution and so if one has F(x,p)F(x,-p) there is no momentum at a given x point. In such a case, the distribution within dx must disappear and one must have a uniform distribution. This holds even if F(x,p) has the same dx value for any p. Thus, F(x,p)F(x,-p) = constant and must be periodic in x. This implies that F(x,p) = 1/F(x,-p) for constant=1. Given that F(x,p) =0 at the initial and final points of dx, then F(x,-p) = infinite at these points and that is not allowable. Thus, one is forced to use complex variables and try exp(i g(p) x). If g(p) is a function of p (i.e. not a constant), then conservation of momentum implies that exp(i g(p1) x) exp(i g(p2) x) = exp(i g(p1+p2) x), suggesting exp(ipx). What, however, if g(p) = constant? In such a case, one has issues creating an average kinetic energy: ( Sum over p a(p) exp(i constant x) pp/2m) / (Sum over p a(p) exp(i constant x) ((1)) This leads to a kinetic energy which does not depend on x and cannot be used with V(x) in a conservation of energy equation. Thus, we choose exp(ipx). Note: there is no reason to choose a(p,x) because the physics of finite dx and dt is restricted to exp(i constant x). Finally, we try to explain why the same dx=hbar/p and dt=hbar/E together with x=vt follow from special relativity.
In a number of previous notes, we argued that free particle quantum mechanics, i.e. exp(-iEt+ipx), follows from the Lorentz invariant A = -Et+px. For t=0,x=0, A=0, but we argued that there is another solution, dx = hbar/p and dt=hbar/E (we use intervals because x=0, t=0 is a trajectory point). We then noted that this solution is linked with the probability exp(-iEt+ipx) which is Lorentz invariant and creates the above intervals in t and x. Finally, we remarked on the fact that exp(-iEt) conserves energy and exp(ipx), momentum, when one uses these for 2-body collisions, i.e. AND situations. Here we point out that there are numerous dt= f(p,E) and dx=g(p,E) (f, g are arbitrary functions) which yield A=0. For example, dt=p and dx=E is an example. Only dx=hbar/p and dt =hbar/E, however, lead to a probability form which conserves momentum and energy and this is something which we did not stress clearly in previous notes. Thus, there seem to be a number of issues involved in obtaining a free particle probability exp(-iEt+ipx) and these are independent requirements, which then lead to a particular solution. We argue that these requirements are: ((1a)) One wishes to preserve Lorentz invariance ((1b)) One desires discrete dx, dt intervals instead of Newton’s intervals which tend to 0. ((1c)) These intervals need to be linked with a particle related probability which defines them. This probability is critical physically because if the theory is to define photons and particles equally well ( as special relativity ((1a)) applies to both), one must account for the probabilistic effects of 2-slit interference and 1-D reflection-refraction at an n1-n2 index of refraction junction. ((1d)) One must have conservation of momentum and energy. We argue that it is the combination of these requirements that ultimately leads to the free particle probability exp(-iEt+ipx).
It is well-known that special relativity and F=dp/dt are closely related. In fact, the latter holds in Newtonian mechanics, but also in special relativity if one uses p = mov/sqrt(1-vv/cc) (one dimension here). We suggest that one may find the relations dx=hbar/p and dt=hbar/E from this relationship. In other words, we suggest that one may think of p/delta t and E/delta x as average constant forces (i.e. p changes linearly in t and E in x, with E representing both inertia and v effects). This follows as a generalization of the consideration of a frame moving with -dv. If one has constant forces, this may be seen as an average and one may postulate that one has in fact probabilistic force delivery leading to exp(-iEt+ipx) as a probability in x,t.