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The Dirac Equation and Time Flux

Francesco R. Ruggeri

Published Jul 24, 2019• 0 citations
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Abstract

It was argued in a number of previous notes that for the nonrelativistic case, W(x,t) transforms under x->x+a, t-> t+b (with a and b infinitesimal) as exp(ipx - iEt), except with p replaced with = - i d/dx W(x,t) and E replaced with i d/dt W(x,t). It was suggested this was a driving condition of nonrelativistic quantum mechanics, and if this is the case, one might expect these ideas to carry over into relativistic quantum mechanics. For relativistic quantum mechanics, however, one has the Einstein energy-momentum relationship E*E= p*p + mo*mo (c=1) which leads to -d/dt d/dt W(x,t) and -d/dx d/dx W(x,t) being used. The momentum term is fine because it is related to < p*p conditional >, but the second derivative of time seems to be a little confusing as it represents < E*E conditional > and not <E conditional >. If <E conditional> has physical significance, as it seems to be the case in nonrelativistic quantum mechanics, one might expect an equation with this time flux i.e. i d/dt W(x,t) / W(x,t) = < E conditional > and not < E*E conditional >. Dirac wrote such an equation, but obtaining a single time derivative comes at a price. The Dirac equation, in one dimension, contains matrices, d/dx and d/dt in addition to a two vector wavefunction (U(x,t), V(x,t)) instead of W(x,t). Thus, the Dirac equation in one dimension leads to coupled equations with U(x,t) and V(x,t). The single derivative d/dx is deceptive because U(x,t) can be written in terms of d/dx V(x,t) and vice versa, so ultimately the Dirac equations contain d/dx d/dx which is needed to obtain < p*p conditional >. The question is: How can one obtain < E conditional >? This may be done by using a (d/dt + constant ) -1 operator i,e. almost an inverse time operator, in other words either (E+m)-1 or (E-m) -1 where E can be thought of as id/dt. Thus, the RHS of the Dirac equations is i d/dt U(x,t) or i d/dt V(x,t) which suggests an infinitesimal step forward in time, while the LHS side contains (id/dt +m)-1 or (-id/dt-m) -1 which seems to be representative of undoing such a step. It should be noted that one may take Einstein’s energy-momentum equation E*E = p*p + mo*mo, without any knowledge of quantum mechanics, and cast it as 2x2 matrix equation, linear in E, namely H (U,V) = E (U,V). The matrix H serves as an evolution operator and another matrix serves as a velocity operator. One may derive the Schrodinger zitterbewegung equation for the velocity matrix without any use of wavefunctions and derivatives which are key to quantum mechanics. Nevertheless, the idea of noncommuting matrices, vectors and zitterbewegung is present. There are several choices for the matrix H, but one leads to the one dimensional Dirac coupled equations Thus, the “spin” features may be obtained directly from E*E= p*p+mo*mo without any quantum mechanics. (1), (2). The purpose of this note is to examine some of these ideas.

DOI
10.5281/zenodo.3350839

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•Jan 13, 2022•0 citations
It was argued in a number of previous notes that for the nonrelativistic case, W(x,t) transforms under x->x+a, t-> t+b (with a and b infinitesimal) as exp(ipx - iEt), except with p replaced with = - i d/dx W(x,t) and E replaced with i d/dt W(x,t). It was suggested this was a driving condition of nonrelativistic quantum mechanics, and if this is the case, one might expect these ideas to carry over into relativistic quantum mechanics. For relativistic quantum mechanics, however, one has the Einstein energy-momentum relationship EE= pp + momo (c=1) which leads to -d/dt d/dt W(x,t) and -d/dx d/dx W(x,t) being used. The momentum term is fine because it is related to < pp conditional >, but the second derivative of time seems to be a little confusing as it represents < EE conditional > and not <E conditional >. If <E conditional> has physical significance, as it seems to be the case in nonrelativistic quantum mechanics, one might expect an equation with this time flux i.e. i d/dt W(x,t) / W(x,t) = < E conditional > and not < EE conditional >. Dirac wrote such an equation, but obtaining a single time derivative comes at a price. The Dirac equation, in one dimension, contains matrices, d/dx and d/dt in addition to a two vector wavefunction (U(x,t), V(x,t)) instead of W(x,t). Thus, the Dirac equation in one dimension leads to coupled equations with U(x,t) and V(x,t). The single derivative d/dx is deceptive because U(x,t) can be written in terms of d/dx V(x,t) and vice versa, so ultimately the Dirac equations contain d/dx d/dx which is needed to obtain < pp conditional >. The question is: How can one obtain < E conditional >? This may be done by using a (d/dt + constant ) -1 operator i,e. almost an inverse time operator, in other words either (E+m)-1 or (E-m) -1 where E can be thought of as id/dt. Thus, the RHS of the Dirac equations is i d/dt U(x,t) or i d/dt V(x,t) which suggests an infinitesimal step forward in time, while the LHS side contains (id/dt +m)-1 or (-id/dt-m) -1 which seems to be representative of undoing such a step. It should be noted that one may take Einstein’s energy-momentum equation EE = pp + momo, without any knowledge of quantum mechanics, and cast it as 2x2 matrix equation, linear in E, namely H (U,V) = E (U,V). The matrix H serves as an evolution operator and another matrix serves as a velocity operator. One may derive the Schrodinger zitterbewegung equation for the velocity matrix without any use of wavefunctions and derivatives which are key to quantum mechanics. Nevertheless, the idea of noncommuting matrices, vectors and zitterbewegung is present. There are several choices for the matrix H, but one leads to the one dimensional Dirac coupled equations Thus, the “spin” features may be obtained directly from EE= pp+mo*mo without any quantum mechanics. (1), (2). The purpose of this note is to examine some of these ideas.
In previous notes (1)(2), we argued one may write two flow/flux equations for a free particle using an unknown function A(x,t) i.e. d/dx (partial) A = E(v) v ((1a)) and d/dt (partial) A = -E(v) ((1b)) where E(v) is energy which is a function of rest mass and velocity v=constant. A(x,t), but after taking derivatives, x/t is set to v. As shown in (2), one may write A=tL(v) and find E(v)=mo/sqrt(1-vv) (c=1) (and p=Ev) i.e. the result of special relativity. Thus special relativity seems to follow directly from a flow/flux equation where motion v increases energy. Alternatively, one may obtain both relativistic/nonrelativistic quantum mechanics for a free particle, by converting ((1a)) and ((1b)) into differential equations i.e. id/dt exp(iA) = Eexp(iA) and -id/dx exp(iA) = pexp(iA) with A=-Et+px yielding the same result. In both cases, physical motion v has physical implications. For special relativity, energy changes from mo to mo/sqrt(1-vv) and there are effects on clocks and lengths. For quantum mechanics there is time and space resolution linked to dx→1/p and dt→1/E. In this note we try to investigate if there is a connection between the two. In particular we try to see why -Et+px within the free particle wavefunction exp(-iEt+px) is a Lorentz invariant.
In a previous note (1), we argued that both free particle quantum and classical mechanics follow from an energy flow/flux scheme based on: d/dx (partial) A(x,t) = p ((1a)) and d/dt (partial) A(x,t) = -E ((1b)) A(x,t) turns out to be the classical action tL(v) (L=Lagrangian) with x/t=v and the above hold for both the relativistic and nonrelativistic cases. We further argued that ((1a)) and ((1b)) lead to two sets of solutions, one classical and the other quantum. The classical solution assumes dt→0 and dx→0 i.e. flows may be followed at each point in space (and time). In (2) we argued that ((1a)) and ((1b)) are consistent with p=dL/dv (partial) and H=E= pv - L. From these together with p=Ev one may find: E=mo/sqrt(1-vv) (c=1). For the nonrelativistic case, E= mocc + .5mvv. In this classical analysis one may resolve each t and x, thus if one has a function V(x) (potential) representing energy, the nonrelativistic result is: (E-V(x)) = .5mvv. The quantum solution to ((1a)) and ((1b)) is very different. It establishes eigenvalue equations i.e. id/dt (partial) exp(iA) = E exp(iA) and -id/dx (partial) exp(iA) = p exp(iA) for the free particle. The importance of this is that new physical mechanisms seem to come into play. A= -Et+px so exp(-iEt+ipx) suggests time and spatial regions proportional to 1/E and 1/p in which there is some ambiguity i.e. there are two dimensions and there seems to be some kind of probability for the particle to be in one dimension or the other at x (and similar results for t) i.e. cos(px) and sin(px). As a result, one may not have dx→0 and dt→0. Furthermore, it is argued that a two dimensional associated probability scheme must accompany energy flow. At first this may seem strange, but if one considers a photon which has an energy flow Ev, one has electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the motion which undergo periodic motion linked to cos(wt) and sin(wt). Thus, the quantum particle periodic probability mimics an already known result from Maxwell’s equations. In fact, we have argued that for fermions there is additional angular motion i.e. spin linked with the recognition of 3-space. Thus we argue that quantum mechanics is involved with periodic type probability motions which are needed to resolve dx and dt (linked to exp(-iEt+ipx) and periodic probability motion (spin) and are also needed for fermions to resolve 3-space as two p vectors may have point in different directions (i.e. spin). Quantum mechanics therefore seems to be a very different theory from classical mechanics, but both appear to be based on energy flow/flux. As a result, the average of a quantum bound state should be linked to a classical system we argue in this note as one only deals with energy flow/flux.
In a previous note (1) we argued that the free particle classical action A (relativistic or nonrelativistic) may be written in terms of v=x/t and then varied in x and t independently. One finds that dA/dx partial = p and dA/dt partial = -E implying A= -Et+px with x and t independent. This is the opposite of the classical mechanical idea of x(t). Creating an eigenvalue equation yields -id/dx partial exp(iA) = pexp(iA) and id/dt partial exp(iA) = Eexp(iA). exp(iA) plays the role of an unusual type of probability we argue which describes two dimensional periodicity (cos(px) and sin(px) ). We have argued that the quantum particle is the medium for a two dimensional wavelike motion of an energy-momentum wave. A wave type structure is needed to describe dynamics (like a classical wave), but unlike a classical wave two dimensions are required because there is no preference of any x point for a free particle. Both cos(px) and sin(px) both treat x in a preferential manner as their values vary with x. For a classical wave this is fine because the creation point of the wave imposes boundary conditions, but there is no such boundary condition imposed on a free particle. exp(ipx-iEt0 must somehow then link to P(x)=constant. One may note that exp(-iA)exp(iA) = 1 for the free particle. This may be argued to be linked to spatial invariance i.e. P(x)=constant where P(x) is not exp(ipx). Here we argue that exp(-iA)exp(iA) represents a product of two unusual probabilities , one for motion in a certain direction and the other for the time reversed scenario. If the quantum particle is the medium of an energy-momentum wave exp(-iEt+ipx), then the product of the regular and time reversed unusual probabilities cancel or undo each other. In other words one does not see any change in space as long as one has a noninteracting exp(-iEt+ipx) . Given that -id/dx is a linear operator this product yields a momentum of 0. We consider this idea and its implications on a momentum distribution Sum over p a(p)exp(ipx) which may represent a bound state or other states. In particular, it seems that P(x)=W*(x,t)W(x,t) which yields a classical type of probability (P(x) real, positive and normalized to 1) is linked to a product (merging) of forward and time reversed situations so that any spatial density which remain due to the quantum particle acting as a medium for an energy-momentum wave (as well as the time reversed part) would represent an actual change in spatial density. exp(ipx) already contains two periodic spatial functions (cos(px) and sin(px)), but does not manifest it unless there is an interaction.
In a previous note (1), we argued that one may obtain either the Schrodinger or Klein-Gordon equation from the classical free particle Action = Integral dt L = T L(v) by writing v=X/T and using: p= dAction/dx partial and -E = dAction/dt partial. This may be used together with an energy-momentum relationship E=pp/2m (nonrelativistic) or EE=pp + mm (relativistic) to create an eigenfunction equation by using exp(i Action) as a solution. This is equivalent to exp(-iEt+ipx). In (2), we argued that if one generalizes momentum p to Ev where E(v) is energy and uses nonrelativsitic Lagrangian equations: p=dL/dv and H=E= pv-L, one may find the relativistic Lagrangian for a free particle which in turn yields p= d/dx (TL) partial and -E= d/dt (TL) partial i.e. the form of energy and momentum for a free particle in special relativity. In this brief note, we argue that the Action/Lagrangian formalism for a free particle seems to follow directly from a flow(flux) type equation namely: d/dx Action partial = p = Ev (= mo v nonrelativistic limit). If energy is flowing out of a region given by the usual Gaussian flux equation d/dx function (i.e. grad dot vector) represented by d/dx Action partial, then one is losing energy E(v) in this region. Thus d/dt Action partial = -E. As a result, one should analyze the problem in special relativity i.e. use p=E(v) v (but no explicit form for E(v)) and then take the nonrelativistic limit to get the nonrelativistic approximation. As a result, assuming a flow problem with a function Action(x,t) leads to the Lagrangian formalism. From this one may obtain the forms of special relativity, classical equations of motion and quantum mechanics for a free particle (relativistic or nonrelativistic).
Date on paper should be 2022 not 2021. In a previous note, we argued that for a free particle there exists a function A(x,t) such that d/dx (partial) A(x,t) = p ((1a)) and d/dt (partial) A(x,t) = -E ((1b)). In particular, we used p=E(v) v for the relativistic case and p=mov. We showed that A(x,t) is the classical action for a free particle Integral dt L = T L with v=x/t before the derivatives are taken. After, x/t is set to v. As a result, there is a nonrelativistic A(x,t)= T .5mvv and a relativistic one A= -mo sqrt(1-vv) (c=1). We argued that ((1a)) and ((1b)) are in the form of flow equations. Energy E flows through space out of a dx region (i.e there is an energy flux Ev) so if x is held constant, the change in time is -E. We also noted that one may obtain both the Schrodinger and Klein-Gordon equations from ((1a)) and ((1b)) (see reference in (1)). As a result, A(x,t) is linked to both the nonrelativistic and relativistic free particle actions, yields free particle quantum mechanical equations and may also be used to obtain the form of special relativity (as discussed in the reference in (1)). In this note, we wish to consider spin which is not present in ((1a)) and ((1b)). For both relativistic and nonrelativistic classical dynamics which are linked to A(x,t) one deals with numbers (scalars) and so no notion of spin arises. In obtaining both the relativistic Klein-Gordon equation and nonrelativistic Schrodinger equation from ((1a)) and ((1b)), one creates an eigenvalue equation i.e. id/dt exp(i Action) = E exp(iAction) ((2a)) and -id/dx exp(i Action) = p exp(i Action) ((2b)) which only hold for the free particle. One may then use E and p in expressions EE = pp + momo (where p=Ev= dAction/dx partial) and E = pp/2m + V(x) where p=mov=dAction/dx (partial). For the free particle, one has ((2a)) and ((2b)) without establishing the Klein-Gordon equation. Given that p=Ev is a vector, one may try to write ((2b)) as a vector, but given that one has operators acting on exp(i Action) one does not use a basis vector ei (ei dot ei=1), but rather a “basis” operator or a spin matrix. Thus, we argue that spin emerges in this way without having to linearize the Klein-Gordon equation. Interestingly, this approach only holds for fermions. For the photon, which is a boson, a Dirac-like equation may be obtained directly from a d/dt (partial) EL EL + BB + b grad dot (El x B) = 0 as shown in (2) (with a,b being constants). This again follows from a flow scheme.
In Part I we argued that two flow equations for a free particle, namely: d/dx (partial) A(x,t) = p ((1a)) and d/dt (partial) A(x,t) = -E ((1a)) may be applied to both particles with rest mass and those without. In fact we argue that there are at least three scenarios associated with ((1a)) and ((1b)). The first is classical mechanics for a particle with rest mass mo and constant velocity. Using ((1a)) and ((1b)) with p=E(v)v this scenario yields special relativity. A second solution is to write ((1a)) and ((1b)) as eigenvalue equations: -id/dx (partial) exp(iA) = p exp(iA) and id/dt (partial) exp(iA)= E exp(iA) where A=-Et+px. This yields a quantum mechanical solution for a particle with rest mo if one assumes p=Ev. In such a case one may use the special relativistic result EE = pp + momo and establish the Klein-Gordon equation. A third solution pertains to objects with zero rest mass. As argued in Part I, these do not follow p=E(v)v, but rather the classical wave result: v=E/p. In this note we examine massless particles, namely waves on a string, photons and sound, in more detail. For the zero mass case, dA=0 so there is motion in such a way as to keep A constant. If one considers periodic motion and uses ((1a)) and ((1b)), a solution which is real and periodic is: d/dt d/dt cos(A) = vv d/dx d/dx cos(A) ((2)) A second order partial differential equation is needed as one insists the solution be real. This differs from the quantum mechanical solution of exp(-iEt+ipx) which is complex for a reason. The modulus must be linked to a probability of 1 for a free particle. The zero mass solution is one of a smeared-out physical wave. We note that ((1a)) and ((1b)) deal strictly with E energy and p momentum, but cos(A)=cos(-Et+px) is associated with a period proportional to 1/E and a wavelength proportional to 1/p. This raises two questions. First, what physical entity is periodic? Secondly, how does the energy appear in the problem as energy and not just 2*3.14 frequency of the physical entity? We try to consider this issue for a wave on a string, photon and sound wave.