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Quantum Dynamical Probability Wave

Francesco R. Ruggeri

Published Jun 15, 2022• 0 citations
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Abstract

A classical particle is considered to be a point described by x(t) i.e. x and t are both a set of points. In a one dimensional problem, however, dx= v(x) dt so if all dx tend to zero, then dt’s are small, but don’t tend to zero in the same way. In other words dx may be considered small, but of a finite size. To have a particle within dx, it should have a probability distribution that goes to zero at the endpoints of dx i.e. one could have a repeated set of these for a constant velocity. This, however, contradicts P(x)= C1 dt = C1 dx/v(x). Thus it seems first that there are two kinds of probability distributions and that the set of distributions fitting into each dx is incomplete because if this set is described by a function F(x), this function should have the same magnitude at F(x+dx) for a free particle. This suggests a phase function linear in x i.e. exp(i C1 x). P(x) = C1dx/v(x) is based on dynamics and no dynamics appears in exp(i C1 x). It seems that dynamics should occur leading to the possibility of exp(i p x). (This , however, is ad hoc.) We call this a dynamic probability as opposed to P(x). In quantum mechanics it is called a wavefunction. If one considers the classical free action (relativistic or nonrelativistic) with x and t independent, then A= -Et + px (1) and one may create eigenvalue equations -id/dx partial exp(iA) = p exp(iA) and id/dt partial exp(iA) = E exp(iA) so exp(ipx) also appears more formally. In other words a fixed resolution periodic distribution requires the same shifted distribution (i.e. cos(px) and sin(px)) kept as separate dimensions i.e. “i” in order to create a dynamic probability which is a phase function which may be linked to P(x). This phase function exp(ipx), however, consists of two classical-like waves showing that in each dimension probability is “carved” out of troughs and added to crests. The two dimensions allow for the dynamic probability to be consistent with P(x)=constant for a free particle.

DOI
10.5281/zenodo.6647488

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•Nov 22, 2025•0 citations
A classical particle is considered to be a point described by x(t) i.e. x and t are both a set of points. In a one dimensional problem, however, dx= v(x) dt so if all dx tend to zero, then dt’s are small, but don’t tend to zero in the same way. In other words dx may be considered small, but of a finite size. To have a particle within dx, it should have a probability distribution that goes to zero at the endpoints of dx i.e. one could have a repeated set of these for a constant velocity. This, however, contradicts P(x)= C1 dt = C1 dx/v(x). Thus it seems first that there are two kinds of probability distributions and that the set of distributions fitting into each dx is incomplete because if this set is described by a function F(x), this function should have the same magnitude at F(x+dx) for a free particle. This suggests a phase function linear in x i.e. exp(i C1 x). P(x) = C1dx/v(x) is based on dynamics and no dynamics appears in exp(i C1 x). It seems that dynamics should occur leading to the possibility of exp(i p x). (This , however, is ad hoc.) We call this a dynamic probability as opposed to P(x). In quantum mechanics it is called a wavefunction. If one considers the classical free action (relativistic or nonrelativistic) with x and t independent, then A= -Et + px (1) and one may create eigenvalue equations -id/dx partial exp(iA) = p exp(iA) and id/dt partial exp(iA) = E exp(iA) so exp(ipx) also appears more formally. In other words a fixed resolution periodic distribution requires the same shifted distribution (i.e. cos(px) and sin(px)) kept as separate dimensions i.e. “i” in order to create a dynamic probability which is a phase function which may be linked to P(x). This phase function exp(ipx), however, consists of two classical-like waves showing that in each dimension probability is “carved” out of troughs and added to crests. The two dimensions allow for the dynamic probability to be consistent with P(x)=constant for a free particle.
In a previous note (1) we argued that the free particle classical action A (relativistic or nonrelativistic) may be written in terms of v=x/t and then varied in x and t independently. One finds that dA/dx partial = p and dA/dt partial = -E implying A= -Et+px with x and t independent. This is the opposite of the classical mechanical idea of x(t). Creating an eigenvalue equation yields -id/dx partial exp(iA) = pexp(iA) and id/dt partial exp(iA) = Eexp(iA). exp(iA) plays the role of an unusual type of probability we argue which describes two dimensional periodicity (cos(px) and sin(px) ). We have argued that the quantum particle is the medium for a two dimensional wavelike motion of an energy-momentum wave. A wave type structure is needed to describe dynamics (like a classical wave), but unlike a classical wave two dimensions are required because there is no preference of any x point for a free particle. Both cos(px) and sin(px) both treat x in a preferential manner as their values vary with x. For a classical wave this is fine because the creation point of the wave imposes boundary conditions, but there is no such boundary condition imposed on a free particle. exp(ipx-iEt0 must somehow then link to P(x)=constant. One may note that exp(-iA)exp(iA) = 1 for the free particle. This may be argued to be linked to spatial invariance i.e. P(x)=constant where P(x) is not exp(ipx). Here we argue that exp(-iA)exp(iA) represents a product of two unusual probabilities , one for motion in a certain direction and the other for the time reversed scenario. If the quantum particle is the medium of an energy-momentum wave exp(-iEt+ipx), then the product of the regular and time reversed unusual probabilities cancel or undo each other. In other words one does not see any change in space as long as one has a noninteracting exp(-iEt+ipx) . Given that -id/dx is a linear operator this product yields a momentum of 0. We consider this idea and its implications on a momentum distribution Sum over p a(p)exp(ipx) which may represent a bound state or other states. In particular, it seems that P(x)=W*(x,t)W(x,t) which yields a classical type of probability (P(x) real, positive and normalized to 1) is linked to a product (merging) of forward and time reversed situations so that any spatial density which remain due to the quantum particle acting as a medium for an energy-momentum wave (as well as the time reversed part) would represent an actual change in spatial density. exp(ipx) already contains two periodic spatial functions (cos(px) and sin(px)), but does not manifest it unless there is an interaction.
In part I we argued that classical mechanics divides a one dimensional line into equally spaced dx regions. These are small, but not zero because classical spatial density is C1 dt = C1 dx/ v(x) where v(x) is velocity which is assumed to be constant within dx to first order. In terms of probability, if a particle is within a certain dx, it is not in the adjacent ones i.e a probability distribution reaches zero at the endpoints of dx. We argued that for a constant velocity classical density is P(x)=constant and so one must keep two spatial probability distributions (in two dimensions or separated by i) such that the modulus is 1. This makes the two ideas compatible. This idea seems to apply to quantum mechanics with the stipulation that dx is linked to 1/p. Thus one has exp(ipx) as a dynamical probability as discussed in Part I. In this note we wish to consider this in more detail together with the Schrodinger equation. In particular we focus on the high energy limit. We argue that exp(ipx) should hold for a small dx region classically which may include several wavelengths proportional to 1/p. Thus there is still the idea of the distribution and its shift as two dimensions, but we argue that the time-independent Schrodinger equation may be an approximation as it considers exp(ipx) and exp(-ipx) when creating Wn(x) and it is not clear that such interference holds in a very high n limit.
In a classical bound state, conservation of energy: p(x)p(x)/2m + V(x) = E holds for all x. Examined in a statistical sense, one may consider each constant dx to have a probability density proportional to dt(x) where v(x)=velocity =dx/ dt(x). Thus the particle is followed in time. In quantum mechanics, even for a free particle exp(ipx), there exists a wavelength hbar/p. Within this region one cannot follow the particle in time. In fact, there are two probability distributions cos(px) and the shifted sin(px). The two dimensional nature of exp(ipx) is required to describe the direction of motion. There exists a mathematical abstraction or average which holds for any x within the wavelength and yields the classical x= p/m t. Thus there is a duality, but within a wavelength one cannot follow the particle exactly using x=p/m t. Rather there is no time and one thinks of probabilities to be at one x or another. The operator -id/dx yields the abstracted or average momentum at any x and (-id/dx)(-id/dx) average pp if one divides by probability. In other words: (-id/dx) exp(ipx)/ exp(ipx) = p and (-id/dx) (-id/dx) exp(ipx) / exp(ipx) = pp. These then apply to any x point. For a bound state, exp(ipx) is replaced with W(x)= Sum over p a(p)exp(ipx). Thus p and -p are included together. From a statistical point of view this is fine because a quantum bound state is described in terms of energy conservation (time-independent Schrodinger equation). Unlike the classical case, the probabilities of p and -p differ, i.e. exp(ipx) and exp(-ipx). The sum exp(ipx)+exp(-ipx) yields cos(px) which is the resolution probability distribution. Taking -d/dx d/dx of W(x) and then dividing by W(x) yields the average kinetic energy at any x within the wavelength. In other words this is the average kinetic energy which matches the classical result for any energy level. As a result, prms(x)prms(x)/2m + V(x) = En holds for any quantum level, but prms(x) is an rms average value which bypasses wave structure. That is why the exp(ipx) for p,-p and -id/dx must be used to calculate average quantities within a wavelength. Many different p,-p combinations are needed so that at each x within a wavelength the correct average kinetic energy value appears. Now consider a high energy level and choose a fixed dx length to represent a tiny region in the system, a cutoff for which there is no further resolution. p(x) is constant within this region. If hbar/ prms(x) <= dx, the wave structure of quantum mechanics does not play a role. (Note that for an oscillator, W(x) is a set of crests and troughs with different heights and widths.) As a result, there is no need for d/dx acting on W(x) to describe average kinetic energy within dx. The average kinetic energy is prms(x)prms(x)/2m and dx is treated like a point. Only if exp(ipx) is used does -id/dx yield the proper classical result. (An alternative scenario is that d/dx acting on a function divided by the function yields the same result as acting on exp(ipx) divided by exp(ipx) e.g. -d/dx d/dx cos(px)/cos(px) = -d/dx d/dx exp(ipx) / exp(ipx). If one has the quantum kinetic energy expression -1/2m d/dx dW/dx / W ((1)) and considers one momentum, namely prms(x), and uses W(x)= cos( prms(x) x), then with prms(x) constant at x, ((1)) yields prms(x) prms(x)/ 2m. Thus d/dx has not broken down even though it does not describe motion within dx which is now a point. A problem arises, however, if one considers Wn(x)= Wn1(x)Wn2(x) as this yields an equation containing dW1/dx dW2/dx/ (W1W2). Then the above procedure yields: dW1/dx/W1 (prms(x) sin(prms(x) x) / cos(prms(x) x). This does not match the classical value. Furthermore, dW2/dx/ W2 contains +prms(x) and -prms(x) with different weights while a classical scenario is -pP(-p,x) + pP(p,x) = 0 because P(-p,x)=P(p,x) while quantum mechanically it doesn’t. We analyze this situation and conclude that d/dx breaks down/ does not apply in the classical limit because it is used to calculate average values within a wavelength only. It only “works” if the effect of the derivative(s) on a function divided by the function is the same as the effect on exp(ipx) divided by exp(ipx). If a wavelength fits within dx, there is no need to calculate values at any lower x level and d/dx is not needed. In fact, there is a single prms(x) value in dx and the average time links different dx’s so that one follows the particle (on average in the sense that one ignores structure within each x) by x(t). As a practical consequence, using -id/dx together with the wavefunction W(x) can lead to problems in the classical limit because d/dx does apply. In short, using -id/dx operating on Wn(x) divided by Wn(x) leads to issues unless it produces the same effect as acting on exp(ipx) divided by exp(ipx).
We take as our starting point the free particle classical action which may be written as A= -Et+px if t and x are treated as independent variables. It is possible to find two relationships linking v (velocity) to x and t from dA=0. The first is the classical wave result vp = E while the second is p=Ev where E=mo/sqrt(1-vv) (c=1). Furthermore one may write dA/dx partial = p ((1a)) and dA/dt partial = -E. ((1b)) This may be generalized to two eigenvalue differential equations, but this immediately begs the question: Why do this? We argue that Lorentz invariant form -Et+px represents scaling of both t and x. For example, p scales x and we argue there should be physical relevance to this. This physical relevance results in the wavelength proportional to 1/p. In other words, -Et+px represents more than velocity. The treatment of the scaling for a quantum wave and classical wave differ, we argue, in that the former keeps E,t and p,x separate while a classical wave does not. In other words pv=E applies to a classical wave which is described by cos(-Et+px). In other words, one takes ((1a)) and ((1b)) which separate E,t and p,x into two independent equations and takes account of scaling by combining the two (to include both x and t) i.e. creating the classical wave equation: 1/vv d/dt d/dt partial W(x,t) = d/dx d/dx partial W(x,t). We argue that quantum mechanics on the other hand keeps ((1a)) and ((1b)) separate. The velocity (relativistic) p=Ev is not a wave velocity. A solution to ((1a)) is exp(ipx) and to ((1b)) exp(-iEt). These are usually combined for a free particle to give exp(-iEt+ipx) and a wave is described with a phase velocity pv(phase)=E. We prefer to keep exp(-iEt) and exp(ipx) separate . For example, for two slit interference one does not make use of phase velocity or exp(-iEt). For a bound state one uses p=Ev, but a single free particle is represented by exp(ipx) in W(x)=wavefunction = Sum over p a(p)exp(ipx). exp(-iEn t) appears after one has found En, using the exp(ipx)’s in the sense that one does not include an exp(- i pp/2m t) for each exp(ipx). We argue that by separating E,t and p,x, the latter leads to a scheme for which there is “no time”. It is true that the particle moves at a speed x/t, but p=m1v1=m2v2 etc so p does not uniquely define velocity, rather it defines an impulse hit 2p = Integral F dt . Thus the scaling px which leads to an x, p only wave exp(ipx) is linked to an interaction. If the particle is moving freely and not interacting, then one has classical determinism i.e. v=constant = x/t. As soon as an interaction occurs, one changes from variables x,t which are linked to x, P conditional (x/p) and there is uncertainty in the position of x within a wavelength. The phase in exp(ipx) is only dependent on x not on the time the particle reaches x. exp(ipx) thus represents a probability and one must consider a sum of different possible outcomes (as in a two slit experiment) in order to describe an interaction. This is very different from the local interaction of classical mechanics. Nevertheless for a bound state one makes use of the two formalisms i.e. KE(x)= Sum over p pp/2m a(p)exp(ipx) / W(x) = KEclassical(x). We try to discuss some of these ideas in this note.
The uncertainty principle (linked to p,x or E,t) plays an important role in quantum mechanics. For example, an electron with an exact momentum p is described by a wavefunction exp(ipx). This function exists at all x points and so it is suggested in the literature that there is complete uncertainty as to the electron’s position. (More specifically P(x)=exp(-ipx)exp(ipx) normalization constant=constant and so all x points have the same probability.) Thus if p is completely certain, it is said that position x is completely unknown. We note, however, that exp(ipx) consists of cos(px) and sin(px) which are repeated probability distributions (with zero endpoints). Thus even though they exist in all of space, due to repetition which in turn is due to spatial invariance, there is a specific length number, namely the wavelength. Thus we argue that in classical physics there is a set of points (x,p), but in quantum mechanics ( p , x with its dx interval), with the latter being equal to hbar/p. Then the only uncertainty is within the dx interval i.e. the wavelength and spatial density is linked to momentum i.e. there is dynamical probability. In particular, there is a frequency hbar/E and a wavelength hbar/p which define an internal clock and ruler and the two are independent. Thus within a wavelength one has a probabilistic picture (in order to have endpoints defining the dx interval) and no sense of time, yet on average time exists because of hbar/E and the particle moves in space with a constant v. This begs the question: How do time and space x arise in such a scenario? We speculate the following. Assume there exists a property called energy which defines an object. This object, however, may break into two different objects. As a result, one introduces a parameter called time to distinguish between the two systems (E) and (E1,E2). For a certain time range one has a single object, while for a later time interval, one has two objects. Each of the two objects in the second system, however, needs to be distinguished as well and so another parameter, namely space x is used for this. If the two objects existed at the same x and t, how would one know there were two unless another parameter were introduced? We use t and x as the distinguishing parameters and furthermore give these a measure i.e. dt and dx. We then argue that from these ideas one may show the notion of speed and direction (because there are two objects) as well as conservation of momentum arises. Given the notion of an interval, we argue it must be described by a probability distribution and we link this to constant/p and exp(ipx). We finally note that since spatial density is linked to dynamical probability, one must consider motion associated with a density which may lead even to collective motion.
In Part 1, we argued that P(x)dx=dx/L (where L is an arbitrary length) applies to a particle at rest. If one views such a particle from a frame moving at constant -v, it is moving. We argued that in such a case, the relevant probability is not simply linked to the position x, but also to the momentum p at x because this delivers an impulse hit. In particular, probability is presumably to be used in a physical problem with interactions and probability and a dynamical particle requires a dynamical probability describing both x,t and E,p. This led to exp(-iEt+px) which actually predicts intervals in space hbar/p and time hbar/E. In other words, a probabilistic view point leads to these results. Here, we ask the question: What if one simply wishes to use deterministic physics to describe a moving particle? After all, Newtonian mechanics is deterministic and one does not really need to focus on P(x)=1/L or its modification for a moving particle. In such a case, a particle moving with constant v (starting at x=0, t=0) is described by x/t=v both in Newtonian mechanics and special relativity. There is no uncertainty in x and t here which begs the question: Why does it appear in the probabilistic formalism of Part 1? In particular, exp(-iEt+ipx) derived in Part 1 implies physical regions: dx = hbar/p and dt=hbar/E and these seem to be absent in x/t=v and this is a problem. We suggest that a probabilistic approach is buried in the Lagrangian formalism which leads to the result d/dt v = 0, i.e describes the particle’s motion in space. This motion is actually x/t=v, but this equation only presents a subset of the description of a particle that is moving with constant speed, even in a deterministic Lagrangian/Action approach. We have already pointed this out in (1). We briefly explain it again here, but the real question is why does one need to consider the Lagrangian in order to describe x/t=v? In other words, the probabilistic approach associated with v=x/t only emerges in the Lagrangian formalism using a relativistic action Lt = -Et+px, with x/t=v. Ignoring the action and Lagrangian leads to an absence of hbar/p and hbar/E and one is only concerned with x/t=v. We note that the Lagrangian is primarily linked to the result: p = dL/dv partial and so argue that one is not simply interested in motion (x/t=v), but also in interaction because p is associated with an impulse hit. Thus, the Lagrangian approach is more than simply a mechanism which describes x,t motion, it is associated with p and E (through Hamiltonian = E = pv-L.) Using the Lagrangian approach suggests that it does not suffice to consider x and t by themselves when p and E are present. One must consider all four variables x,t,E,p which is the same point made in Part 1. The physics of the problem dictates that it is not enough to simply think in terms of x,t,v. The Lagrangian approach, which is constructed to ultimately yield x/t=v, when written in terms of E, p, i.e. Lt = -Et+px demonstrates uncertainty in x, hbar/p and t, hbar/E as shown in (1). This uncertainty must then be written in terms of a probability which is Lorentz invariant and leads to exp(-iEt+ipx). The point is that one would not even consider a probability if one did not consider E,p and x,t together as a complete treatment of a moving particle. In other words, x/t=v is an incomplete description of the state of a particle moving with constant speed, even in a deterministic framework.. At first this might seem surprising, but it is well known that energy and p are linked to interactions. In special relativity, one does not consider x,t,v alone and then compute p and E from these, but considers four vectors and Lorentz invariant equations. It is possible to create a Lorentz invariant equation involving all four state variables x,t,E,p and it turns out that this is the relativistic Lagrangian which describes motion, so this approach is more general than simply stating x/t=v. Thus, delta x = hbar/p and delta t= hbar/E appear in both the probabilistic approach of Part 1 and the deterministic one of the Lagrangian used here.