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European Journal of Physics

Reply to ‘Comment on “Overcoming misconceptions in quantum mechanics with the time evolution operator”’

L. M. Arévalo Aguilar, P. C. Garcia Quijas

Published Apr 22, 2013• 4 citations
Publisher

Abstract

We contend that the statement attributing to us the implication that the wave functions ?I(x, t) and ?II(x, t) are different cannot not be logically supported. On the contrary, throughout our paper ?Overcoming misconceptions in quantum mechanics with the time evolution operator? (Garcia Quijas and Ar?valo Aguilar 2007 Eur. J. Phys. 28 147) we constructed an argument to give support to the statement that the two wave functions ?I(x, t) and ?II(x, t) are the same. In other words, in our paper we really did appreciate that methods I and II lead to identical results.

DOI
10.1088/0143-0807/34/4/l77

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Comment on ‘Overcoming misconceptions in quantum mechanics with the time evolution operator’

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In their paper ‘Overcoming misconceptions in quantum mechanics with the time evolution operator’, García Quijas and Arévalo Aguilar (2007 Eur. J. Phys. 28 147) examined the time-dependent wave function of a particle in the one-dimensional harmonic oscillator potential using two different methods. The two wave functions that the authors obtained through the methods have different analytical expressions. The authors showed numerically that the two wave functions lead to the same probability density. When the real parts of the wave functions are compared, however, they are different in their details. That was puzzling because both wave functions are supposed to be solutions of the same time-dependent Schrödinger equation with the same initial condition. We point out that the two wave functions are actually identical. We show this analytically.

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We contend that the statement attributing to us the implication that the wave functions ?I(x, t) and ?II(x, t) are different cannot not be logically supported. On the contrary, throughout our paper ?Overcoming misconceptions in quantum mechanics with the time evolution operator? (Garcia Quijas and Ar?valo Aguilar 2007 Eur. J. Phys. 28 147) we constructed an argument to give support to the statement that the two wave functions ?I(x, t) and ?II(x, t) are the same. In other words, in our paper we really did appreciate that methods I and II lead to identical results.
In their paper ‘Overcoming misconceptions in quantum mechanics with the time evolution operator’, García Quijas and Arévalo Aguilar (2007 Eur. J. Phys. 28 147) examined the time-dependent wave function of a particle in the one-dimensional harmonic oscillator potential using two different methods. The two wave functions that the authors obtained through the methods have different analytical expressions. The authors showed numerically that the two wave functions lead to the same probability density. When the real parts of the wave functions are compared, however, they are different in their details. That was puzzling because both wave functions are supposed to be solutions of the same time-dependent Schrödinger equation with the same initial condition. We point out that the two wave functions are actually identical. We show this analytically.
In his fresh "Comment" (arXiv:0711.0137v1), A. Mostafazadeh reacts on my very recent letter (arXiv:0710.5653v1) where I tried to clarify certain misunderstandings which occurred in A. M., Phys. Lett. B \textbf{650}, 208 (2007) [arXiv:0706.1872v2, "Paper"]. As long as the "Comment" offers a new support of the original assertions made in the "Paper", I feel obliged to re-clarify the matter by extending my argumentation. I insist that it is possible to escape the main conclusion of the "Paper", indeed. In particular, I point out a gap in the new calculations in "Comment", add a few remarks on the notation and reconfirm that the unitarity of the time-evolution DOES NOT require the time-independence of the metric operator.